Percentages of CD8 or CD4 T-cells expressing IFN-γ, CD69 or both

Percentages of CD8 or CD4 T-cells expressing IFN-γ, CD69 or both markers in negative control cultures were subtracted from those in stimulated cultures. A net value of >0.1% was considered positive (Table 5). Memory cell assay at 9 months: Only samples from group 2 infants were tested. In the majority of samples IFN-γ and CD69 responses to the nucleoprotein peptide pool were detectable in CD4 but not in CD8 T-cells. Effector cell assay at 9.5 months of age: A similar but low proportion of CD4 and CD8 T-cells from the two groups showed a positive IFN-γ response after stimulation with E-D virus. There was concurrence of CD4 and CD8 IFN-γ responses in

6 of 7 samples. Expression of CD69 was detected more often in CD8 than CD4 T-cells. Memory cell assay at 18 months: After stimulation with EZ virus IL-2 expression was detectable in less than half of the samples and very few expressed IFN-γ. There were no significant differences between cell types this website and little concurrence within the positive samples. Measles antibody protects against infection but Veliparib its role in limiting viral multiplication and severity of disease is less clear [16]. Although an arbitrary protective level of measles antibody has

been ascribed, in an outbreak of measles in Senegal half of the antibody negative vaccinated children did not develop measles when exposed [12]. In vaccinated macaques a rapid amnestic antibody response follows measles infection which coupled with a boost in cell mediated immunity limits viral replication and aborts disease [17]. With the assumption that a booster dose of vaccine mimics infection or exposure, we examined both antibody and cell mediated responses shortly after re-vaccination. Our study is the first to provide detailed knowledge of the early antibody response to

a booster dose of measles vaccine following crotamiton either vaccine schedule. A standard dose of E-Z vaccine in 4 month old infants raised protective levels of antibody in the majority of the children by 9 months of age. After either one or two booster doses of vaccine antibody concentrations rose dramatically within 2 weeks and faded slowly with time. Maternal antibody, possibly by neutralising the live vaccine and altering antigen processing [18], depressed both primary and secondary antibody responses. The impact faded by 36 months of age and did not influence responses to further vaccination. The booster responses were independent of antibody at the time of vaccination suggesting that even if antibody concentrations are low a rapid response in conjunction with cellular immune responses will limit disease and lower transmission on subsequent measles exposure [19]. However concentrations of antibody following a boost decayed quicker in group 2 children. They may be more susceptible to subclinical infections [20] though this event is unlikely to result in the further spread of measles [21].

The recombinant plasmids were transformed by heat shock protocol

The recombinant plasmids were transformed by heat shock protocol in competent Escherichia coli DH5α. Following screening of a large number of recombinants, a recombinant clone containing the insert positioned correctly on the plasmid, which was confirmed by sequencing of the construct, was selected as a vaccine candidate. This clone was denominated DENV-4-DNAv. Sequencing primers were designed using the DENV-4 H241 strain sequence (GenBank

accession number AY947539.1) as genome reference. For whole-region sequencing, see more PCR primer pairs were listed above. The selected clones were grown at 37 °C in LB medium with ampicillin 100 μg/ml. These plasmids were extracted using the GeneJET Plasmid Miniprep Kit (Fermentas Life Sciences, USA), quantified by UV absorption (260 nm) and approximately 500 ng of each plasmid was sequenced using the ABI Prism Big Dye Terminator Cycle Sequencing Ready Kit and the primers listed on Table 1. The obtained sequences were aligned and a final manual adjustment was completed with BioEdit software. These sequences were then compared with the sequence available at the Genbank. The expression of dengue-4 E protein by DENV-4-DNAv was analyzed by transfecting HeLa cells with the candidate vaccine

using cationic lipid-based delivery. In summary, 50 μg of plasmid DNA was mixed with the cationic lipid Lipofectamine™ 2000 (Invitrogen) at a lipid/DNA mass ratio of 2:1 in 1 ml of L15-FBS free for 45 min at room temperature. The mixture was added to cells grown to approximately 80% of confluence in 35-mm dishes (Costar, Angiogenesis inhibitor Cambridge, MA) and incubated at 37 °C in a 5% CO2 incubator. After 12 h of incubation, an additional 2 ml of L15 medium with 10% FBS were added to the cells. Seventy-two hours after transfection, the cells were washed by centrifugation with phosphate-buffered saline (PBS), resuspended in cell lysis buffer (20 mM Tris–HCl (pH 7.5), 150 mM NaCl, 1 mM Na2 EDTA, 1 mM EGTA, 1% Triton, 2.5 mM sodium pyrophosphate, Sitaxentan 1 mM b-glycerophosphate, 1 mM Na3VO4,

1 μg/ml leupeptin) and sonicated briefly. As positive control we infected HeLa cells with live dengue-4 virus (M.O.I = 1). After 3 days of incubation the cells were analyzed by indirect immunofluorescence (IFA) to detect protein expression, another fraction of the cellular extracts were subsequently analyzed by immunoprecipitation followed by western blot. Cellular extracts were prepared from transfected HeLa cells after the labeling period as described. Samples of the cellular extracts and supernatants from recombinant plasmid transfected cultures were submitted to an immunoprecipitation, using the Seize Primary Immunoprecipitation kit (Pierce Biotechnology Inc.). Briefly, 1 ml of the cellular extract and 2 ml of the supernatant culture was added to 0.

Lancefield and Hare subsequently identified GBS in vaginal swabs

Lancefield and Hare subsequently identified GBS in vaginal swabs in 1935 [2] and in 1938 Fry described three fatal cases in post-partum women [3]. Reports of neonatal disease from GBS were sporadic until the early 1960s when GBS became recognized as a leading cause of early neonatal sepsis in the USA [4]. By the 1970s it had become the dominant pathogen in the early neonatal period [5]. By the early 1980s GBS had become the most common cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis in a number of developed countries [6], [7] and [8]. In the past five years, Icotinib ic50 late-onset (LO) GBS disease has been associated with case reports of transmission via infected breast milk [9]

raising questions about mode of acquisition and transmission of this enteric pathogen and the development of neonatal disease. Although GBS is not just a neonatal disease, the disease incidence and severity is highest during the first 90 days of life. Early onset (EO) GBS disease (disease presenting in the first six days of life) accounts for approximately 60–70% of all GBS disease. GBS serotypes Ia, Ib, II, III

and V are responsible for most EO disease [10] and [11]. In contrast, serotype III predominates in LO disease, which may be acquired perinatally, Abiraterone clinical trial nosocomially or from the community. [12] In the USA EO disease rates have declined from 1.4 per 1000 live births in 1990 [13] to at 0.28 per 1000 live births in 2012 [14] mainly attributed to the implementation of universal screening for GBS rectovaginal colonization in pregnant women and intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis. However, the incidence of LO disease has remained static at between 0.3 and 0.4 per 1000 births

since 1990 [14]. This amounts to 28,100 cases and 1865 deaths annually in the USA [14]. Although the epidemiology of GBS in resource-rich countries is well documented, its contribution to the burden of neonatal infection in low/middle income countries has proved more difficult to assess. GBS has been reported as the predominant cause of neonatal sepsis in South Africa and Kenya [15], [16] and [17] as well as an important cause of meningitis in Malawi Dipeptidyl peptidase and Kenya, but Asian studies have reported a much lower incidence [18], [19] and [20]. A recent systematic review reported that the overall incidence of GBS in resource-poor settings ranged between 0 and 3.06 per 1000 live births [21]. GBS colonizes the rectum and vagina, and maternal colonization is a pre-requisite for EO disease and a risk factor for LO [22] and [23]. In resource-rich countries an estimated 20–30% of pregnant women are colonized with GBS [23] and [24], approximately 50% of their babies become colonized and 1% progress to develop invasive disease. EO disease may occur rapidly; signs of sepsis are evident at birth or within 12 h in over 90% of cases (98% within the first 12 h) [12].

Exclusion criteria were other neuromuscular pathology in the hand

Exclusion criteria were other neuromuscular pathology in the hand (eg, De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, trigger finger), surgical interventions on the carpometacarpal joint, a Beck Depression Inventory score of more than 4 (Wang et al 2005), a State

Trait Anxiety Inventory score of 30 or more (Antunes et al 2005), or any neurological condition in which pain perception was altered (Wajon and Ada 2005). Both interventions were applied by an experienced physiotherapist with a 4-year post-graduate certificate in manual therapy and 11 years of experience in the management of musculoskeletal pain disorders. The experimental group received a neurodynamic nerve slider technique targeted to the radial nerve over the symptomatic hand for 6 sessions over 4 weeks. The technique was applied with the patient positioned in supine and the physiotherapist seated. The technique involved alternating the following two movements: shoulder find protocol depression applied simultaneously with elbow flexion and wrist extension; and shoulder elevation simultaneously with elbow Selleckchem JQ1 extension, wrist flexion, and ulnar deviation. These movements were alternated at a rate of approximately 2 seconds per cycle (1 second into extension and 1 second into flexion). This technique is intended to produce a sliding movement of neural structures in relation to their adjacent

tissues. Speed and amplitude of movement were adjusted such that no pain was produced. At each session, the technique was applied 3 times for 3 min separated by 1-min rest periods. Participants in the control group received a sham dose of intermittent ultrasound therapy to the thumb region for 10 minutes for 6 sessions over 4 weeks. Further detail of each intervention is available in the primary report of this trial (Villafañe et al 2012a). Pressure pain threshold is a quantitative sensory test of

tissue sensitivity and it is defined as the minimal amount of pressure that produces pain, measured via a pressure algometer (Ylinen 2007). Pressure pain thresholds near to the pathological site are thought to represent the degree of peripheral nociception, whereas pressure pain thresholds distant to the pathology are a marker of central nervous system hyper-excitability (Kamper et al 2011). The validity heptaminol and reproducibility of algometry has been described, with higher pressure pain thresholds indicating lower pain sensitivity (Fischer 1987). Pressure pain threshold was measured contralaterally over the lateral epicondyle, thumb carpometacarpal joint at the anatomical snuffbox, the tubercle of the scaphoid bone, and the unciform apophysis of the hamate bone. The pressure applied was increased by approximately 0.1 kg/cm2 each second until the onset of pain. Three measurements were obtained from each point and the mean was used for statistical analysis. A 1-min rest period was allowed between each measurement.

The strain grows at temperature 30–42 °C, broad range of pH4-9 I

The strain grows at temperature 30–42 °C, broad range of pH4-9. It is capable of growing in the presence of 2–8%NaCl.The cells were unable to hydrolyse casein, esculin, gelatin, starch and no growth was observed in the presence of urea, citrate. The bacterium was identified by partial 16s rRNA gene

selleckchem sequencing as S. hominis MTCC 8980 at Institute of Microbial Technology, Chandigarh, India, and deposited in GenBank under Accession No. JX961712. The growth was studied in lipase enrichment media at the interval of 6 h. Fig. 1 shows bacterial growth at various incubation time of 0–90 h. No enzyme activity was observed at 0 h but gradual increase in lipase production occurred from 30 to 48 h. Maximum production at 48 h was 17.8 U/ml and found to decline thereafter. When the OD is considered, it was found to be high at decline phase which www.selleckchem.com/products/azd5363.html might be due to the increase in turbidity by releasing byproducts. Reports support our study, that enzymatic synthesis is greatly associated with cell growth.20 The effect of pH on lipase production is indicated in Fig. 2. Maximum lipase production of 14.7 U/ml was observed at pH7. Optimal pH for the stability of enzyme was about 7,rather than7.8.21Fig. 3 depicts the effect of temperature on lipase production. At 40 °C 22.3 U/ml lipase production was observed, after that there was

a decrease in lipase activity, similar results were reported by Immanuel et al22 Thus, the increase in temperature showed negative effect. Fig. 4 shows effect of nitrogen on lipase production. Observed lipase production with yeast extract was found to be 19.5 U/ml. Significant change was observed with potassium nitrate

but not with ammonium dihydrogen phosphate. Our results are supported by Pogaku et.al.23 Fig. 5 depicts lipid mediated lipase production. Lipase production observed in olive oil was 13.5 U/ml whereas very low production was observed with short chain lipids. These Rolziracetam results revealed, that this strain was more selective towards long carbon chain natural oils.23 The effect of metal ions on lipase activity is shown in Fig. 6. Among the metal ions used Ca2+ showed 21.5 U/ml but no lipase production was observed with Hg,2+Ni,2+ whereas Mn2+ and Ba2+ had positive effect on lipase activity. Other metals such as Fe,2+Na2+ and Mg2+ had significant effect on enzyme activity. It has been reported, that lipases from Pseudomonas glumae 24 and Staphylococcus hyicus 25 and 26 contain a Ca2+binding site which is formed by two conserved aspartic acid residues near the active site and that binding of Ca2+ion to this site dramatically enhanced the activities of these enzymes. 27 It has been demonstrated, that Staphylococcal lipases may depend on the presence of Ca2+ions. Fig. 7 depicts lipase production on addition of organic solvents. The order of lipase activity was found to decrease in the following order > Hexane-14.6 U/ml > acetone – 12.2 U/ml > propanol – 10.5 U/ml > ethanol – 7.

Consequently, differences between StreptInCor and the M protein s

Consequently, differences between StreptInCor and the M protein sequences do not affect opsonization of the target strain, indicating that StreptInCor have broad capacity of coverage against the diverse M-types around the world. Previously we showed

that StreptIncor can be recognized by several HLA class II molecules, making it a candidate vaccine with broad capacity of coverage. The binding prediction of the C-terminal Z-VAD-FMK amino acid sequences of the M1, M5, M6, M12 and M87 proteins with different HLA class II molecules shows that the possibility of recognition/processing of M proteins and peptides in the pockets (P1, P4, P6 and P9) of different HLA class II molecules agree with previous human studies from our group [26]. Another important data present here is that the anti-StreptInCor opsonizing and neutralizing antibodies did not induce cross-reactivity with human valve protein extracts, indicating the absence of cross-reactive antibodies. These results agrees with previous studies with HLA class II transgenic mice, in which no cross reactivity against heart-tissue derived proteins and

no tissue lesions were observed in several organs up to one year post-vaccination [29]. The present work reinforces the safety of and strong immune response triggered by the StreptInCor mice vaccination. Productions of antibodies that opsonize and neutralize a broad range of S. pyogenes Metabolism inhibitor strains indicate

the potential of StreptInCor to prevent streptococcal infections without causing deleterious reactions. The authors declare that there is no conflict of interest. StreptInCor intellectual properties are in the names of Luiza Guilherme and Jorge Kalil. This work was supported by grants from “Fundação de Amparo à Pesquisa do Estado de Sao Paulo (FAPESP)” and “Conselho Nacional de Desenvolvimento Científico e Tecnológico (CNPq)”. Karine De Amicis’s benefits were supported by “Coordenação de Aperfeiçoamento de Pessoal de Nível Superior (CAPES)”. Oxymatrine
“Global molecular analyses are exploited to enhance our understanding of novel vaccination strategies. High-throughput technologies, including microarray analyses and RNA deep sequencing, allow genome-wide profiling of gene expression within different study groups. Similarly, targeted assays enable study of the expression of a dedicated number of genes [e.g. dual colour reverse transcription multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification (dcRT-MLPA) assay], cell-expressed molecules (e.g. flow cytometry) or secreted molecules (multiplex assays). Expectations of data output from these analyses in vaccine trials are high, and it is hoped that through the systematic analysis of biomarkers using modern bioassays, predictive biomarkers, which can be used as (surrogate) markers of clinical endpoints or of adverse events, can be identified.

Il existe des moyens directs pour objectiver la non-observance (p

Il existe des moyens directs pour objectiver la non-observance (pilulier électronique, dosage des médicaments), mais leur usage n’est pas applicable à la pratique clinique courante. L’usage d’un questionnaire adapté à la recherche d’une mauvaise observance chez l’hypertendu a été évalué en pratique quotidienne et a apporté une aide à la prise en charge d’hypertendus non contrôlés [12]. La recherche d’une mauvaise GPCR Compound Library screening observance chez l’hypertendu résistant apporte souvent une information utile comme l’indique une étude réalisée en Pologne

qui se base sur la détection des médicaments dans les urines et révèle une mauvaise observance du traitement chez 53 % des patients avec chez 16 % une absence totale de prise des médicaments prescrits [13]. Les analyses des bases de données de délivrance des prescriptions des antihypertenseurs ont noté que c’est dans l’année ABT-888 concentration suivant la première prescription que la fréquence d’arrêt de la prise quotidienne est la plus élevée. Une étude réalisée à partir de la base de données de l’Assurance maladie en France [14] montre qu’à 12 mois de la première délivrance d’antihypertenseur, 35 % des patients ont arrêté le traitement initialement prescrit et que 63 % ont connu

au moins une période d’arrêt temporaire (plus de 14 jours) de leur traitement. Certains paramètres sont associés à un meilleur suivi du traitement (persistance de la prescription) : un âge plus élevé, la présence next d’un diabète ou d’antécédents cardiovasculaires, un nombre réduit de comprimés, la délivrance d’associations fixes. Pour améliorer l’observance au suivi du traitement antihypertenseur, des études d’intervention ont été réalisées afin de tester les effets de l’information du patient, de l’éducation thérapeutique et de l’automesure tensionnelle. Les résultats de ces études ne sont le plus souvent pas démonstratifs. Il est suggéré de rechercher un facteur favorisant la résistance aux traitements (excès de sel, alcool, dépression et interférences médicamenteuses) ou des médicaments et substances ayant une action vasopressive ( Encadré 1 and Encadré 2). Anti-angiogéniques

Anti-inflammatoires non stéroïdiens Les conseils concernant les mesures d’habitudes de vie sont similaires chez l’hypertendu résistant et chez l’hypertendu contrôlé : • perte de poids en cas de surpoids (IMC > 25 kg/m2) ou d’obésité (IMC > 30 kg/m2) ; La réalisation d’un recueil des urines des 24 heures permet la mesure de la natriurèse qui quantifie les apports en sel. Un consommateur excessif de sel est dépisté si la natriurèse dépasse 12 g/jour (200 mmol). L’objectif d’une élimination par 24 heures inférieure à 6 g de NaCl (100 mmol) sera recommandé. Un interrogatoire alimentaire détaillé dépistera les consommations d’aliments riches en sel caché (fromage, pain, charcuterie, pizza, bouillons cubes…).

The virus neutralising antibody responses generated

again

The virus neutralising antibody responses generated

against the homologous immunogens were indistinguishable (2.4 log10). The r1 values derived from these titres were also indistinguishable and indicative of good antigenic match. According to the data presented by Brehm et al. [21] these are representative of titres MK-1775 clinical trial which should confer >94% protection in either group. Moreover, based again on the titres observed, we should expect 100% of the A+ vaccinated animals to be protected against challenge with A− and >85% of the A− vaccinated animals to be protected against challenge with A+. This slight difference in the degree of predicted protection between the A+ and A− vaccination groups was also reflected in the r1 values between A− sera and A+ virus when compared to A+ sera and A− virus. With reference to Table 1, pooled sera from either A+ or the A− vaccination groups contained antibodies which were cross-reactive

with heterologous viruses examined. The r1 values derived from these titres indicate that animals vaccinated with either A+ or A− virus, generate serum antibodies that would only have a close antigenic match against A/IRN/2/87. Additionally, the A+ vaccine conferred a good reaction to A/IRN/31/2001 which was only borderline against the A− vaccine, but in all other cases the r1 values could not be considered fundamentally different, on or below 0.3. However, it has been shown that high potency vaccines can protect animals against viruses that JQ1 cell line serologically have given r1 values considered to be indicative of a poor match, i.e. less than 0.3 [21]. Using again the approach PD184352 (CI-1040) by Brehm, the animals vaccinated with the A+ virus demonstrated antibody titres which would be considered

to give greater than 44% protection against all 12 field isolates examined [21] and in 10 cases the predicted level of protection should be greater than 79%. Animals vaccinated with the A− virus also demonstrated antibody titres which would again be considered, in all but one case (A/PAK/9/2003), to give at least 44% protection against the selected field isolates and for nine cases the predicted level of protection should be greater than 79%. Indeed, the A/PAK/9/2003 strain was the only one which showed a marked difference in the likelihood of protection using either A+ or the A− vaccine. Overall, there was no evidence to show that the responses against the A− vaccine was more cross-reactive than A+ vaccine and arguably the A+ vaccine could be considered more cross-reactive/protective. This is however based on a limited number of isolates and requires a much more extensive panel of isolates to be more conclusive one way or the other.

4) There were no related SAEs, no immediate AEs or AEs leading t

4). There were no related SAEs, no immediate AEs or AEs leading to

withdrawal, and no other safety concerns were identified. SAEs considered not related to vaccination were reported for 44 children during the study period, 10 in JE-CV Group, 21 in MMR Group, and 13 in Co-Ad Group. Vaccinations were well tolerated, find more with a similar percentage of children in each group reporting solicited injection site reactions (21.5% to 23.7%) (Table 2). Fewer solicited systemic reactions were reported when JE-CV was administered alone (47.8%) than after either MMR administered alone (54.2), or when the two vaccines were co-administered (64.8). There were no reported ARs. AESIs within 28 days after JE-CV vaccination were reported by 30 children (29.4%) in Group JE-CV, MEK inhibitor 49 children (25.0%) in Group MMR and 77 children (35.0%) in Group Co-Ad; a higher rate of children reported skin and subcutaneous disorders in Co-Ad Group. These AEs were reported at a similar frequency in MMR recipients irrespective of MMR administration concomitantly to the JE-CV vaccination; therefore, the higher frequency of AEs in the Co-Ad group is representative of the AE incidence after MMR vaccination. The most frequently

reported AESI was somnolence: 26 children (25.5%) in JE-CV Group, 45 children (23.0%) in MMR Group and 67 children (30.5%) in Co-Ad Group. One event of hypersensitivity was reported by one child in MMR Group. Thirty AEs, classed as skin and subcutaneous old tissue disorders and suggestive of hypersensitivity/allergic reactions (e.g. rash), were reported by 29 children, 22 of which were in Co-Ad Group. Two children suffered a febrile convulsion during the study, both in MMR Group: one 4 weeks after MMR vaccination; one on Day 256, during the safety follow-up. No vaccine failure was reported during the study. This study was designed to demonstrate whether co-administration of JE-CV and MMR vaccines had an impact on the immunogenicity or safety profile of the two vaccines compared with either vaccine administered alone. A non-inferiority design was used to assess

the seroconversion rates 42 days after vaccine administration, allowing the assessment of non-inferiority based on defined thresholds for each immune response. The study successfully demonstrated non-inferiority of the immune responses, in terms of seroconversion. A neutralizing antibody titer of ≥10 (1/dil) is the serological correlate of protection commonly accepted and recommended as evidence of protection by the WHO for the evaluation and licensure of new JE vaccines [8] and [9]. The demonstration of non-inferiority of the seroconversion rates after co-administration of JE-CV and MMR, versus separate administrations, means that there is no clinically meaningful immunogenic interference between these live, attenuated vaccines, in vivo.

Postvaccination, seroresponse, seroprotection and hSBA GMT were a

Postvaccination, seroresponse, seroprotection and hSBA GMT were all significantly higher (p < 0.001) in recipients of two doses of MenACWY-CRM than in recipients of a single dose ( Table 4 and Table 5 and Fig. 2). The purpose of this study was to assess the safety and immunogenicity of a quadrivalent vaccine, MenACWY-CRM, currently licensed for use from 11 to 55 years of age, in children 2–10 years of age in comparison with a quadrivalent vaccine (MCV4) already licensed in this younger age group. The results of the

study demonstrate that MenACWY-CRM was well tolerated and immunogenic in these young children and with a similar safety profile and favorable immunogenicity profile compared to the licensed MCV4 product. The data from this study, along with the data that supported the licensure of the vaccine in adolescents and adults, previously published data Olaparib solubility dmso using two or three doses in the first year of life [21] and [22] and a single-dose schedule at 12 or 18 months of age [23], now demonstrate the safety and immunogenicity of MenACWY-CRM

across the age spectrum from infancy to 55 years of age. As a result of the relatively low incidence of meninogococcal disease, studies demonstrating the efficacy of new meningococcal vaccines are impractical. Instead, licensure of new find more products is based on demonstrating noninferiority in the immune CYTH4 response to the vaccine using immunological surrogates of protection [27]. Based on the landmark studies

of Goldschneider and colleagues in the 1960s [26], bactericidal activity at a serum dilution of 1:4 using human complement was correlated with protection against invasive meningococcal disease. More recently, Trotter and colleagues confirmed the inverse correlation of serum bactericidal titer (using rabbit serum and a threshold of 1:8) and incidence of invasive serogroup C meninogococcal disease in the United Kingdom prior to universal immunization [28]. However, given the variability observed with biological assays, many regulatory authorities prefer the use of a 1:8 threshold as a surrogate measurement of protection [29]. In contrast to seroprotection where one posits that the presence of a certain level of antibody will correlate with protection against invasive disease, comparative vaccine studies benefit from a more nuanced analysis. Seroresponse is a measure of an individual’s immune response to a meningococcal antigen that may provide a more complete comparative picture of vaccine response, including those populations with elevated baseline antibody titers. In this study, seroresponse was defined as the development of seroprotective antibody levels in individuals previously seronegative to the specific capsular antigen or a four fold or greater increase in antibody in individuals already seropositive to that antigen.